Just some notes as I was discussing eschatology in a forum that I wanted to jot down for further study.

God's Word says in Revelation 1:1 "The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him....And He sent and signified it by His angel to His servant John.."

But to who did John send this Revelation of Jesus Christ to?

Revelation 1:4 "John, to the seven churches which are in Asia...". If God says the audience is relevant by including such a statement then so should we.

But not only that but let us read Revelation 1:1 for a clear purpose as to why John is sending The Revelation of Jesus Christ...to the seven churches which are in Asia

"The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show His servants—things which must shortly take place...".

So why is this Book being sent to the seven churchs in the opening sentence "to show His servants—things which must shortly take place".

In fact "The Revelation of Jesus Christ..." not only opens but in its conclusions repeats:

"Then he said to me, “These words are faithful and true.” And the Lord God of the holy prophets sent His angel to show His servants the things which must shortly take place."-22:6

And again the audience Jesus Himself says is relevant in 22:16 “I, Jesus, have sent My angel to testify to you these things in the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, the Bright and Morning Star.”

Another example of audience relevance is when Jesus was speaking to the High Priest before his death in Matthew 26:64. The word of God in Matthew says that Jesus was having a conversation before the Sanhedrin with the High Priest. It says so in God's word therefore it matters to the context and interpretation to what Jesus says!!!

"Jesus said to him, “It is as you said. Nevertheless, I say to you, hereafter you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Power, and coming on the clouds of heaven.”

Now their was a response in the forum from an individual that claimed I was misinterpreting "imminency" passages. To which I responded.

Imminent means from my understanding or looking the definition up on the internet: "likely to happen at any moment". Let us assume that the audience is relevant in the book of Revelation for a moment which I argue that since God's makes the audience relevant so should we.

The seven churches then not the church throughout all ages but the seven churches were to expect the things in the book of Revelation to happen at any moment. And clearly shortly comes to pass would include imminence but again the audience is relevant and to whom John is righting this revelation to is relevant. He is not at all saying that it is likely to happen at any moment to the church in every age.

Jesus did not say to the High Priest that he was really talking to the church at large throughout all ages that his coming would be imminent.

This is why I can't accept the imminent argument. But feel free to explain further if you wish.

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